UK VAT fiddle closed

No.

No it isn't.

Are you seriously suggesting that because you pay moe to the retailer and the retailer then fiddles the VAT that you have paid the same price for the goods?

I do believe you really are that stupid.

"Steve Firth" wrote

Let's look back :-

Unless you are now suggesting that you pay the VAT twice (once to the retailer and once to HMRC)...? [Even you can't be that stupid.]

"Steve Firth" wrote

I am seriously suggesting that when you pass money from one person to another for goods, you are "paying" them. I am seriously suggesting that when the amount of money which you are passing over is the same, then you are "paying the same amount".

Do you believe otherwise?

"Steve Firth" wrote

That's sad (for you).

X-No-Archive: yes In message , Peter Ibbotson writes

BSkyB merely ignored requests for VAT receipts. I used to regularly request them when I could pay annually for a subscription. Maybe they reckoned that I'd eventually go away. Which I did. Maybe Scottish law is different?

Are you a complete f****it or do you wish to appear that way? All VAT is paid to HMC&E.

But it appears that you are extremely stupid. On the plank scale you've hit at least four so far.

I believe that you fail to understand the economics of the transaction.

Let me see how can I explain so that even a lout with the intelligence of a retarded sloth can understand.

A tradesman comes to you and offers you the following options.

He can do the job for £1000 + VAT = £1175 He can do the job on the black economy and split the VAT with you 50:50 He can not declare the job, charge you VAT and keep it.

Now do you seriously believe that in all three cases that you have paid the tradesman the same price for the job?

Do you seriously believe that if you take the second and third option that the tradesman has no ripped you off?

Not really, arguing with f*****ts is a hobby for me.

"Steve Firth" wrote

Well, err, no it's not. VAT is generally paid to VAT-registered traders, who pass **some of it** back on to HMRC. ["Output VAT" being paid to the VAT-registered trader, and only "Output VAT less Input VAT" being passed on to HMRC.]

What you don't seem to understand, is that the *customer* doesn't (usually) pay the VAT *to* HMRC.

"Steve Firth" wrote

If all three options entail paying the tradesman 1,175, then I'd say that he *had* been paid the same amount (1,175) each time. If the other options entail paying the tradesman a different amount to

------------------------ "Steve Firth" wrote

Then you're a f****it.

Bye.

"Steve Firth" wrote

Very funny! - You think that "paying him 1,175" is a different amount to "paying him 1,175"!!!

I believe it to be identical. However were you asking as a taxable person? I suspect Sky only issue VAT receipts to commercial subscribers (like pubs) rather than domestic customers. I remember having a similar argument over discounts for prompt payment on Gas bills without being a taxable person it's difficult to get HMRC to anything about it.

Peter

X-No-Archive: yes In message , Peter Ibbotson writes

My VAT number is on my stationery. IIR, Nigel Goodwin, a TV dealer who subscribes to alt.satellite.tv.europe, reported a similar cavalier attitude by BSkyB.

As Google shows, you've quite rightly been banging on about this for quite some time (since 1997)

The VAT act 1994 does distinguish between English and Scottish law in some places[1] and I can't actually find the bits about retail VAT and receipts at present in the Act. I think I'll ask a VAT man next time I meet one. By now however I've given up all hope of ever understanding how VAT works at the detail level it such a morass of exemptions and exceptions.

Peter