Hi guys,
I'm a studying corporate finance and I have a tremendous doubt: when to stocks have corr=-1 does it necessarely mean that they are risk-free? and second i found a statement that confuses me: does it make sense to you that the beta of a risk-free portfolio is +1? please I know that for you it sounds obvious but i really can't get a way out of it. My professor is s***ty!!!!!
thanks in advance, hoping that somebody will save me!!!!