Suppose that I have being using credit card A, paying off the amount owed each month at the last possible moment to ensure that I pay them no interest but maximise the interest my own money earns.
Now suppose that I subscribe to card B, which is offering, for several months, to permit me to transfer the debits on card A to card B, no interest being payable on the increasing amounts outstanding on B.
Now suppose that, instead of paying A at the last possible moment, I transfer the debit to B several weeks earlier than the payment to A would have become due.
My theory is that A gains from this arrangement because it gets the money several weeks earlir than it would have under the old regime. As I am loyal to A (having used them for 30 years), I hope that this is the case.
Is my theory correct? Perhaps B charges A in some way, which negates the apparent gain? Does anyone know?