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'Spent' credit defaults

Here's a question about defaults issued under the Consumer Credit Act that I don't know about.

If a person who has 'spent' defaults (ie, they no longer appear on their credit file as they occured over six years ago and have now been removed), do they still have to declare they had credit problems on a mortgage application or does the fact they have been removed (ie, 'spent') mean they can now ignore them and when the mortgage company does a search on the person, they won't be picked up and therefore, the applicant doesn't even have to declare them.

Are there any mortgage brokers out there who can offer advice about what they would tell their client to do in such circumstances?

TIA

Reply to
D.A.L.
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In message , D.A.L. writes

The fact that their age means they have dropped of the credit file does not mean they never existed.

Applicants should *always* answer every question truthfully b ut be sure to read the question fully.

If the question starts 'have you EVER..." then the defaults should be declared and the dates etc., shown.

If the question starts (typically) "In the last three years have you ever....... " then just tick the 'no' box.

Reply to
john boyle

Although if there's no way anyone can find out then it's hard to see what you've got to lose by not declaring them. How is anyone going to catch you out? Wouldn't they be admitting to having broken data protection act legislation? People must do this all the time - not only credit reference info but also criminal record, driving offences etc?

Reply to
Alex

In message , Alex writes

Its down to your conscience really I suppose.

An example?

Reply to
john boyle

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