QD2010 investment questions

Can anyone explain to me the difference between how the sale proceeds are handled:

-a) this account's cash balance or:

-b) To: the same account (from the account dropdown list)

The former generates a sold transaction while the latter generates a soldx transaction. They appear identical except for the transaction name. Both add to the account cash value.

Is the difference in a *soldx* transaction as described above significant in some way? (compared to a *sell* transaction) Same for bought and miscexp too.

The help file in QD2010 does little to explain the difference to me. It saves me some time using a sell transaction vs using the sellx when I'm entering correcting entries.

That's not what I'm seeing.

What I see is Sold adds to account "Cash Bal"; SoldX does not affect account "Cash Bal".

"soldx" is a sell with a transfer of the funds to another account. You fooled it into thinking you were transferring the funds but you transferred them back into the same account.

I tried a transfer of funds from my checking account, and the "transfer to" pulldown does not include that account. In my brokerage account, a "soldx" transaction does include the same account for "transfer to".

The program should probably not let you do that, but it isn't a significant problem, as the results are still correct.

"John Pollard" wrote in news:i9sbl0$m1c$1 @news.eternal-september.org:

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You are correct. I thought I'd seen the cash balance change with both the sell and the sellx, but checking it again, the sellx does *not* change the cash balance. Sell does.

Jim H wrote in news: snipped-for-privacy@giganews.com:

Thanks Jim. I'm still somewhat befuddled if I should use buy/sell/miscexp transactions or the x equivalent. It seems it shouldn't allow transfers back/forth in the same account from the dropdown list since that function is covered by the button just above.

All I'm trying to do is clean up my wife's accounts which have fees that haven't been recorded. So I'm doing sells of funds which add to the cash value until I miscexp them back out for the fees.

The things that automagically download seem to be the -x transactions. But they don't change the cash value, unlike what I initially reported. My mistake.

Does it matter if my corrections are input as sell/buy/miscexp rather than sellx/buyx/miscexpx?

Using sell/buy/miscexp seems to be keeping my cashvalue at 0... where it should be.

You can make use of that "feature" if you have a situation where you need to handle transactions that would normally be changing the cash balance of the account, but which you do not want to affect the cash balance of the account.

For example: If you were recording old Buy transactions that got their cash from an account you are not tracking in Quicken, you could use BuyX with the cash taken "From" ... the investment account itself. The same approach could be applied to old Sell transactions where the cash was transferred to an account you're not tracking in Quicken.

"John Pollard" wrote in news:i9sslo$ci0$ snipped-for-privacy@news.eternal-september.org:

Thanks John. So the basic use of the -x transaction is to show a movement of funds to/from a different account than the one the transaction is occurring in?

As long as I'm dealing with activities involving transactions within the same account (dividends reinvested, fees (sells and miscexp), contributions with associated buys, transfer of value (sale of a fund and buy of another)), I am good to use a buy/sell/miscExp transaction... in fact, I need to use these in order to keep the cash balance accurate.

To be honest, I'm finding that going back over historical records and cleaning up the transaction detail is more of a chore than I'd imagined. I have transactions in the history file that make no sense. I suspect the mgt company has consolidated funds or changed things in ways that cause me to have problems trying to clean up the file.

I would hope that you guys who have lots of experience dealing with Quicken/investments have a simpler method of dealing with this.

Basically yes.

You could use a "Cash transferred into account" followed by a Bought transaction that took the cash from the investment account. Or you could use a BoughtX transaction, that - effectively - combined the previous two transactions into one.

Using the investment account where you are recording the transaction as the source/destination of the "cash" is a specialized form of a transfer ... transferring funds from/to the account where the transfer is recorded. Quicken does something similar when it creates "opening balance" transactions for new Quicken accounts.

"John Pollard" wrote in news:i9upd9$tji$ snipped-for-privacy@news.eternal-september.org:

Thanks. Appreciate the help.